As you might expect, the demise of the IMSLP has put something of a damper on my grandiose plans of analyzing musical works on this blog. Today, however, we’re in luck, as Wikipedia provides all the source material I’ll need for this post.
The context for this is a question, of sorts, posed by a commenter named “funkhauser” (the reason I say “of sorts” will hopefully become clear):
It seems to me that a surprisingly large number of progressions of 8 chords found in say, your favorite piece, have a IV chord as the “middle” chord (i.e., if each chord lasts a quarter note and we are in 4/4 time then the IV chord is the first chord of the second measure). Two familiar examples are Pachel[bel]’s Canon and the beginning of Bach’s Air on the G string. The chord progressions are, roughly:
I – V – vi – iii – IV – I – IV – V
I – iii – vi – vi7 – IV – V7/V – V – V7(…)However, I can’t think of an 8-chord progression I’ve heard in which the V chord is the middle chord…Imagine putting the V in the place of the IV in Pachelbel’s Canon or Bach’s Air. It would completely change the feel of the piece (and arguably, it would ruin it).
(…)What I’m wondering is: In Westergaard’s theory can we derive the important difference in function between IV and V? And can we derive the fact that the IV should occupy stronger beats and larger time spans than V?
Tisk tisk. It’s obvious that the questioner has not yet managed to throw off the Rameauvian shackles, and is still laboring under the impression that musical passages are constructed by juxtaposing “chords” in time. Well, funkhauser, you’ve come to the right place — disabusing innocent souls of this mistaken notion has become one of my missions in life.
The best way to start, I think, is to take a look at these passages and see what’s actually going on. Here’s how to construct the opening of Pachelbel’s canon:
1. The underlying basic structure is the usual descent (with the
on its way to
, of course):
2. These structural lines will be realized as three textural lines, with span pitches assigned as follows:
(When I say “assigned” I technically mean borrowed, of course.)
3. The top two lines will both descend from the upper note to the lower:
4. The A is delayed by a lower neighbor, in familiar fashion:
5. We connect the F# to the A and the D to the F# by step motion. In fact, we’d like to have continuous quarter notes in these two voices, so on beat 3 of m.2 we’ll also elaborate the C# by a lower neighbor passing tone in the top voice (producing functional parallelism alignment with the bass) and borrow a G from the bass for the middle voice:
6. Actually, we’d like to have quarter notes in all three voices, so we elaborate the bass by means of borrowing :
(The A and the F# are of course borrowed from the span pitches of stage 2 above.)
7. Now, since this is supposed to be a canon, we’ll present the voices one by one.
8. Finally, this is how the texture is actually realized, in terms of which instruments play what.
Now, having analyzed the passage, let’s see if we can address funkhauser’s question. The first thing to note is that nowhere in the above derivation sequence is there any mention of “chords” at all. As a matter of fact, I didn’t even bother to check whether the progression claimed by funkhauser
I – V – vi – iii – IV – I – IV – V
is “accurate” or not — so that as I’m typing this, I literally don’t know what the “chords” of this passage are! I It’s important to emphasize this, because I just got through analyzing the passage in precise detail, attributing a specific function to every single note, and I have the passage itself, as well as my analysis of it, firmly entrenched in memory. Indeed, I can’t mentally replay the passage without instantly and simultaneously reconstructing my analysis. And yet — and yet — when it comes to selecting the appropriate Roman numeral for each of these quarter-note simultaneities, I am — at least at this immediate moment — about as clueless as a typical freshman theory student. (Though I do already know the first one will be I and the last one V.)
Having made that point, let me now pause to reflect on what the chords are…Okay, yes, funkhauser has got it “right”; though I suppose there is an ambiguity about beat 3 of m.1, since there are only two distinct pitch-classes in that simultaneity. Come to think of it, the same is true of both “IV” chords in m.2. Oh, and it’s also true of the very first chord!
(Notice how very different this type of thought is from the instinctive, intuitive reasoning that I used to construct the above analysis. Actually, “instinctive, intuitive” is not the correct description; what I meant to say was specifically musical. Whereas what I am doing here, in verifying funkhauser’s chord progression, is the totally abstract (if trivial) mathematical problem of verifying that two finite sets are equal to each other.)
Funkhauser asks about the difference in function of the IV and V chords. What I would like to point out is that there is no “IV chord” at all! The simultaneity on beat 1 of m.2 is just the coincidence of two passing tones, and that on beat 3 is just the coincidence of two neighbors a passing tone and a neighbor. To pick out these chords as fundamental objects in their own right (and as the same fundamental object, no less!), is to carve up musical reality in the wrong way, like putting dolphins in the same category as fish.
Strictly speaking, then, the answer to funkhauser’s question is “mu” — i.e., “your question depends on incorrect assumptions”. The “chords” of harmonic theory are simply not legitimate music-theoretical entities, any more than Earth, Air, Water, and Fire are chemical elements. Yes, these four things do exist, but they don’t play anything like the theoretical role that people once attributed to them. In fact, today we understand that not only are they not fundamental, but they’re not even the same kind of thing: “Earth” is a planet, “air” is a state of matter (gas), “water” is a chemical compound (H2O), and “fire” is a process (combustion).
So it is with “IV”, “V”, and all the rest. Yes, there are collections of notes in musical compositions to which you could give these labels, but to do so is to presuppose the wrong theory of music.
Like Aristotelian chemistry, harmonic theory may not seem obviously wrong until you’ve had considerable experience with the alternative. This explains why I invariably get reactions like “But…but…of course harmonic theory is correct (or useful) — look how ubiquitous progressions like I-IV-V-I are!”
Yes, and the “Four Elements” are also ubiquitous in the natural world.
For the moment, I will leave it as an exercise to come up with the correct analysis (or at least an analysis of the correct type) of the first two measures of the Air from Bach’s Third Orchestral Suite. Here’s a big hint:







April 24, 2008 at 4:23 am |
SheetMusicFox has scores that used to be on IMSLP.
April 25, 2008 at 12:50 pm |
James,
First of all, I would like to say thanks for devoting a whole page to answer my question. This is the first Schenkerian-style analysis I have found of Pachelbel’s canon, and I’m really glad to finally see one.
Your derivation of the canon has already answered a number of questions for me. For instance, it seems that the extension of the tonic chord into the first two beats of m.2 (in step 1) is ultimately the source of the scale degree $4 – 1$ motion in the bass in m.2. Indeed, it seems to be the reason why the “IV chord” ends up being there, along with the I chord.
However, this analysis has also brought with it a new question. Here is what I would like to ask you now: The analysis above was constructed with the canon in mind, that is, knowing what the end result should be. But now that I see this derivation, and agree with it, I would like to know if, in several of the steps you made above, there are reasons that certain operations you carried out are “particularly good”. That is, given the steps of the derivation, what reasons (if any) would Pachelbel have had to make such steps in the first place (okay, so he wasn’t explicitly using Westergaard’s theory but perhaps he intuitively understood elements of it)? To what degree might a composer be “naturally” inclined to compose Pachelbel’s canon specifically? Are there certain aspects of this piece that make it “better” (by which I mean more “natural”, if that makes sense) than others (even others very closely resembling it)? Maybe there aren’t, but that is what I would like to know.
I can understand why, say, one would want the two top voices to both exhibit stepwise descent–functional parallelism. However, other things, like the initial rhythm of the 3 – 2 – 1 motion (see below), elude me in terms of a “natural” explanation. Do any of the steps ultimately come down to randomness or artistic choice, or can they be explained further?
My specific questions are:
1. In step 1, why might one be naturally inclined to let the tonic chord extend through beat 2 of m.2? Why not just extend to the end of m.1, and let scale degrees 2, 5, and 7 occur on beat 1 of m.2? Or some other rhythm?
2. When you borrow notes for the bass in step 6, why might one be naturally inclined to make the choices you did? That is, why the A on m.1 beat 2, and the F# on m.1 beat 4? Why not the other way around? Why borrow the G on m.2 beat 1? Why not borrow the B? And why borrow the B on m.1 beat 3? Why not the D?
Now, I will attempt to answer my own questions! I make no guarantee that these explanations are accurate or even plausible…
1. Extending the tonic chord to m.2 beat 2 will result in a longer prolongation of the same original set of voices, thus increasing the simplicity/cohesion of the piece.
2. The choice of borrowed notes in the bass provides variety. That is, we already have a D as the first bass note, so choose a B, rather than a D, as the third bass note. Then, since we already have a D and B, choose a G for the fifth note. As for the A and F#, perhaps we choose to have D – A – B – F# because D – A and B – F# are both fifth arpeggios (thus increasing similarity/cohesion).
My “postulate” of course being that particular blends of similarity and variety are more natural and increase the appeal of a piece.
I would very much like to hear your explanations (and critiques of mine). Also, I finally bought a copy of ITT, so feel free to direct me to any relevant pages/passages. Thanks again.
By the way, I suppose my questions above are instances of a more general question:
The Westergaardian operations seem so powerful and diverse in their production of musical material–I am very interested to know if we can, in general, understand certain subsets of these operations (or certain rhythmic choices, borrowing choices, etc. made when applying them) to be somehow more “natural” than others. Perhaps Westergaard addresses this–I still have a lot to read of the book…
April 29, 2008 at 6:47 am |
(Sorry for the delay in responding; my “day job” has been keeping me occupied recently.)
Ponder:
Thanks for the tip. While it doesn’t seem that SheetMusicFox has every score that IMSLP used to have, I was at least able to find the Pachelbel canon.
Funkhauser:
First of all, I would like to say thanks for devoting a whole page to answer my question. This is the first Schenkerian-style analysis I have found of Pachelbel’s canon, and I’m really glad to finally see one.
Well likewise, thank you for the stimulating comments. I think this piece provides a particularly good illustration of what’s wrong with harmonic theory — as is perhaps not surprising, given that it was composed some 40 years before the invention of the latter.
(This is not a trivial point. Advocates of harmony are obliged to explain why, if the concept of “root progression” is as integral as they claim it is to this music, no one bothered to mention this fact before 1722.)
I would like to know if, in several of the steps you made above, there are reasons that certain operations you carried out are “particularly good”. That is, given the steps of the derivation, what reasons (if any) would Pachelbel have had to make such steps in the first place (okay, so he wasn’t explicitly using Westergaard’s theory but perhaps he intuitively understood elements of it)? To what degree might a composer be “naturally” inclined to compose Pachelbel’s canon specifically?
Remember that the steps in the derivation do not necessarily correspond in any chronological sense to the composer’s creative process; what their order represents is the order of conceptual priority assigned to the events by the listener (ITT, p. 63).
It’s quite plausible, for example, that the first aspect of this piece that Pachelbel thought of was the bass line. You’ll notice that the structure of this line is rather unambiguous (ITT p.64); it’s hard to imagine a substantially different way of deriving the notes from that of the analysis above. Consequently, the process of adding the upper lines may very well have amounted to a process of (re)discovering the structure of the bass line — composition via analysis, as it were.
Had I composed this piece, my thought process would probably have been something along the following lines. First, I would have decided that I wanted to write a canon in D major for three violins and continuo, about 5 minutes in duration. Then, I would have decided to make it a passacaglia (in addition to being a canon), with the repeating bass line. Something in quadruple meter, moderate tempo, so that two measures would be an appropriate length for each iteration. Now, given that we want the whole thing to end with a
cadence (which in harmonic theory would be referred to with characteristic imprecision as “V-I”), and we want the penultimate measure of the piece to be the second measure of the final iteration, we’re pretty much forced into making each two-measure segment an elaboration of
. (A priori we might also consider
or
, but these structures require considerable effort to project, because the listener must be prevented from understanding a simpler underlying
; hence the result would be more rigid constraints on our various layers of elaboration, making a 5-minute canon/passacaglia virtually impossible to sustain.)
It is at this point, then, that we confront your first question:
1. In step 1, why might one be naturally inclined to let the tonic chord extend through beat 2 of m.2? Why not just extend to the end of m.1, and let scale degrees 2, 5, and 7 occur on beat 1 of m.2? Or some other rhythm?
As a matter of fact, many other pieces do have different phrase rhythms — the Bach Air is one example. In the present case, I can think of at least two ways to end up with this particular rhythm:
(1) If you’re starting with the bass line as given, it’s pretty much forced on you.
(2) I happen to like the interval of a sixth, so I might have come up with the idea of an upper voice descending F#-A (or D-F#) in quarter notes; this requires six of them, of course.
. When you borrow notes for the bass in step 6, why might one be naturally inclined to make the choices you did? That is, why the A on m.1 beat 2, and the F# on m.1 beat 4? Why not the other way around? Why borrow the G on m.2 beat 1? Why not borrow the B? And why borrow the B on m.1 beat 3? Why not the D?
These alternatives would have made the line less interesting. See ITT, sec. 4.2 (in particular pp. 68-69).
May 3, 2008 at 2:04 am |
Okay, thank you! I read the section on interest you mention–it answered several of my questions. And understanding that the steps above represent conceptual priority clarifies things quite a bit.
By the way, what program did you use to generate the images of the staves and notes in your explanation above (or on any page of this blog, for that matter)?
May 3, 2008 at 10:13 pm |
what program did you use to generate the images of the staves and notes in your explanation above (or on any page of this blog, for that matter)?
GNU Lilypond.
May 31, 2008 at 11:47 pm |
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