The Westergaardian vertical dimension, Part 1

Having done enough harmony-bashing for the moment, I’ll try to advance the discussion in a more positive manner, by presenting some ideas of Westergaardian theory. In fact, I’ll even offer an olive branch to harmonicists, by suggesting a possible legitimate use for Roman numerals! Whether or not you continue to use Roman numerals, if you find something here that’s useful, or that you hadn’t considered before, then I will have accomplished my goal. (The treatment given here is far from exhaustive, or even adequate — so I encourage readers to refer to ITT for more information. Material of my own that is not in ITT will be written in colored text, with the color depending on whether it describes ideas that are fairly clearly implicit in Westergaard, or more substantial extrapolations.)

We’ll begin by recalling Scott Spiegelberg’s query:

I am curious how James distinguishes “perfectly comprehensible [...] melodic motions through various parts of the E-minor scale” that don’t form triads or seventh chords that are found in E minor tonality. As an example, shift the entire right hand part of the Prelude over by one beat, so it starts at exactly the same time as the left hand… How would the analysis be changed without referring to harmonies? Would the modified piece still be in the E minor tonality, and if so, to the same extent as the original Prelude?

That’s certainly a good question to ask. Clearly, no theory of tonal music (or, I would argue, any music) can be of much use unless it takes into account how simultaneous lines interact with each other to create an overall structure. So let’s see what Westergaard’s tonal theory has to say about the vertical dimension. (As it turns out, it has quite a lot to say.)

Let’s first review some basic concepts about the horizontal dimension, i.e. the structure of individual lines. We’ll stick to simple cases, to keep the focus on the main ideas. Basically, the purpose of a line is to move from one tonic triad pitch to another over a particular timespan:

The notes of the line are contructed using the basic linear operations: Rearticulate (R), Embellish By Neighbor (N), Arpeggiate (A) Connect By Step Motion (P).



Each operation segments a timespan into two or more subordinate timespans, over which the operations may again be applied, and so on indefinitely. (The fact that the operations may be iterated at will to build structures of increasing complexity is one of the most fundamental concepts of musical thought, but one which receives far less emphasis than it deserves in introductory treatments of music. I attribute this to an inappropriate focus on objects (such as chords) and their uses, rather than processes (like these linear operations) and their applications.)

Aligned and Parallel Structures

Now suppose we want to combine two (or more) lines together simultaneously over a span of time. The simplest way to do this would be to apply the same operations, segmenting the span in an identical manner, in both lines:

In this situation, we say that (the structures of) the two lines are functionally parallel. Note that this does not imply parallel motion; two lines might have functionally parallel structures and yet move in contrary motion:

A more general concept is that of alignment. We say that (the structures of) two (or more) lines are aligned when they segment the span identically, and in such a way that simultaneously sounding notes also correspond hierarchically:

Obviously, all functionally parallel structures are also aligned; but the converse is not true.

Now, to prove that I’m merely an open-minded seeker of increased theoretical power, and not a single-minded zealot who thinks he’s found the Ultimate Final Theory contained in the One True Book, I’ll make a definition that isn’t in Westergaard. Behold my olive branch, O devotees of harmonic theory:

Definition: A chord progression is a structure consisting of three or more aligned lines.

(I also like to refer to this as a type of “conspiracy”.)

Example:

Here is an example of something that is not a chord progression:

Only the lower voices are aligned, while in the upper voices the span isn’t even segmented. Finally, here is something that isn’t a chord progression itself, but contains a chord progression within:

It goes without saying that status as a chord progression is dependent upon the structural level under discussion (indeed, this is already true for the Schenkerian theory of chord progressions).

If you want to have a (tonal-syntactic, as opposed to motivic) notion of “chord progression”, this is how you do it. (The astute reader will of course realize that the important point here is that the phenomenon of chord progressions, or “harmonic motion”, is reducible to that of alignment of linear operations, and hence need not — should not — be taken as a primitive concept.)

This concept suggests a possible use for Roman numerals: to denote triads resulting from chord progressions. For example,

– a construction, incidentally, that would not be tolerated at the surface in the “common practice period”, presumably because composers wanted to keep the focus on elaborating (single) triads, not progressing among them — might be labeled “I-II-I”.

Cadences and Hierarchical Levels
The alignment of multiple lines, especially over longer timespans, is an extremely powerful structural device; when more than one long-range structural line arrives at its destination simultaneously, the effect is unmistakeable. This is the phenomenon of the cadence.

Of course, what counts as “simultaneously” depends on the structural level under discussion. Cadences often lie beneath the surface:

while not technically a cadence, obviously stands for:

which is a cadence, in the literal sense of simultaneous arrival.

Ultimately, in fact, the principal structural lines of a work can always be understood as aligned at a sufficiently remote level of structure. Even a twentieth-century “atonal” composition with a background looking like:

may be understood, at an even more remote level, in terms of:

and thus, ultimately, as an elaboration of:

the lines of the latter structure being trivially aligned!

The point is that what determines the “strength” of cadences is precisely the extent to which deep structural alignment is realized explicitly as alignment at surface levels. In particular, it is not a question of mere pitch-class content. The difference between twentieth-century music and earlier music is not that the pitch-class content of the latter is “too strange” to be understood as generated through the tonal operations; it is that you have to go very far back into the background to find the degree of linear alignment that one is used to hearing at or near the surface in works of the “common practice period”. It is simply a question of increased complexity; there is no need to invoke new systems of musical grammar. (Or rather, there would not be, if people were accustomed to conceiving musical grammar in terms of operations rather than objects.)

Let us pause to reflect on the irony of this state of affairs. For all that Schenker railed against new music, the reason it seemed so foreign to him was because he could not hear deeply enough into the background! (Although he did come closer than most: cf. his analysis of a few bars from Stravinsky’s Piano Concerto, about which — speaking of irony — I once heard a lecture by Joseph N. Straus, the very same author of a well-known article arguing that Schenkerian theory doesn’t apply to “post-tonal” works ["The Problem of Prolongation in Post-Tonal Music", JMT Vol. 31 No.1 (Spring 1987), pp. 1-21]. Why, I have always wondered, haven’t theorists like Straus ever asked themselves what specifically Schenker would have said had he chosen to tear apart a piece by Webern, for example, rather than the Stravinsky concerto?)

Next time: Vertical Sonorities in ITT

13 Responses to “The Westergaardian vertical dimension, Part 1”

  1. ComposerBastard Says:

    Can you please create a category for these, so I can review them in full at some point when I have more time?

  2. Scott Spiegelberg Says:

    Are timespans only generated by the tonic triad, or may other triads be generators? And are modulations to different tonic triads allowed, at least at local levels? And I don’t understand your example of “isn’t a chord progression itself, but contains a chord progression within.” It looks like a chord progression to me, an incomplete I to V to I. Can you elaborate what you mean by that example?

  3. James Cook Says:

    CB: Done.

    Scott:

    Are timespans only generated by the tonic triad, or may other triads be generators? And are modulations to different tonic triads allowed, at least at local levels?

    Every note, regardless of whether or not it is a tonic triad pitch, is associated with a timespan — over which the operations may (again) be applied. And, of course, when pitches coincide to form a triad, that triad itself may be treated as a local tonic (this is known as tonicization — yet another term already familiar from traditional theory).

    From ITT, sec. 8.5 (pp. 355-356):

    “Tonicization is simply the process of treating a pitch class other than the tonic as though it were the tonic, at least for the time being. In itself, this is easy enough to do. Just take any collection of simultaneously sounding pitches in your underlying structure. If they are consontant but not all members of the tonic triad, they either form another triad, or, if less than three pitch classes are present, can be made to form another triad by the addition of additional pitches.

    “The pitches of this triad can then be arpeggiated, just as though they formed the tonic, and connected by step motion and embellished by neighbors taken from the diatonic collection associated with the new triad. In short, you can erect the same kinds of secondary structures on pitches forming triads other than the tonic that you can on the pitches that represent the tonic triad itself…

    “Clearly, the advantage of such a procedure is the way it makes it so easy for your listener to grasp which pitches — or at any rate which pitch classes — are likely to prove fundamental for the passage as a whole. By creating secondary structures with the diatonic collection associated with a given triad you make it easier for him to relate all the pitches in the passage to pitches belonging to that triad. That triad he can then, in turn, relate to the structure of the piece as a whole…

    “By letting your listener know which pitch classes are likely to be the fundamental pitches of the passage you also make it much easier for him to grasp the large-scale span structure. By using the diatonic collection associated with a given triad you make him suspect that there is or will be a span whose pitches belong to that triad…”

    And I don’t understand your example of “isn’t a chord progression itself, but contains a chord progression within.” It looks like a chord progression to me, an incomplete I to V to I. Can you elaborate what you mean by that example?

    The first, second, and fourth lines are aligned, and thus themselves form a chord progression. But because the third line is not aligned with the others (in fact its span structure is different), the structure formed by all four lines is not a chord progression. (You might think of it as a “chord progression plus another line”.)

  4. Eric Says:

    Why restrict the “goal” of line movement to the pitches of the tonic triad specifically? It seems a little arbitrary to pick out the first three pitches of the harmonic series and say that those are the only pitches that are capable of expressing the tonic. Are they used simply because that’s been common practice, or is there a structural reason not to consider more remote harmonic relationships? Also along those lines, can a line arpeggiate extensions beyond the triad?

  5. Scott Spiegelberg Says:

    By “generated” I meant that the members of that triad are structural and generate other notes through the linear operations you described. These operations have to operate on something, which is usually called the generator. What are the rules that describe how to determine which note(s) is the generator of a timespan, and which notes have been generated?

  6. James Cook Says:

    Eric:

    I said “We’ll stick to simple cases, to keep the focus on the main ideas” specifically in order to avoid questions like this! :-)

    In ITT, that other pitches are to be understood in terms of tonic triad pitches is a postulate of the theory (with “tonal” music being precisely that music to which the theory applies).

    Going beyond ITT, however, I can offer some further explanation. All else being equal, it is preferable to hear complex events in terms of simple events, rather than vice-versa. As it happens, our brains are able to perceive degrees of acoustical complexity: an octave is acoustically simpler than a fifth, a fifth is simpler than a third, and so on (the familiar “consonance hierarchy”). The idea is to hear more complex structures as elaborations of simpler ones.

    But in any case, remember that we’re talking about listener analysis here, not compositional behavior. The fact that the goal of a line is to move between triad pitches does not mean that actual lines as a matter of fact have to move between triad pitches; it just means that any line that does not come to rest on a triad pitch is to be considered “incomplete”.

    Scott:

    Have another look at the second paragraph of the quotation from ITT that I provided; it answers your first question quite clearly. Answering your second question is the purpose of the 400-odd pages of Westergaard’s book (but see in particular section 4.2). My concern here was specifically about the means of describing “vertical” relationships within the Westergaardian metalanguage; summarizing ITT as a whole lies outside the narrow scope of this post.

    I might however just reiterate the point I made before, which is that (1) constructing a metalanguage for expressing analyses and (2) predicting which of two or more possible analyses a listener wll adopt are actually two distinct tasks, which tend to be conflated in ITT. In the present context, my interest is primarily in the first. Once you agree that music is to be understood in terms of these operations, then I’m happy: for we can then discuss the question of what sequence of operations actually underlies a given passage.

  7. Tortoise Says:

    Not to belabor Chopin anymore, but I’ve been having some thoughts. Going back and looking at your graphs for the first twelve measures, and listening to the prelude, I haven’t been able to perceive the G# in right hand at mm. 8-9 as being conceptually prior to the A which follows it. The G# just sounds like a neighbor to me. And yet, we “must” have a G of some sort at the most basic structural level, to spell out the step motion from B to F#. Similarly, the F#-A-F# motion in mm. 10-12 feels more structural than just a borrowing. (but how structural does any operation feel?) BUT — and I’m going out on a limb here — what if Chopin is treating F#-A as though it were a step motion? What if, in this case, it IS a step motion? After all, it is not uncommon for scales used in eastern European folk music to have an aural minor third (usually notated as an augmented second in transcription) betwen adjacent pitches. Granted, the left hand contradicts the notion somewhat — from the outset, we clearly have some diatonic pitch between F# and A. And yet…in the blues, say, which also uses a gapped scale melodically (say, C-Eb-F-Gb-G-Bb-C) we likewise have chords in the accompaniment which use diatonic pitches that fall in those gaps (the A in an F7, the D in a G7). Even if we decide this does not apply in the Chopin prelude, this is still an issue which must be confronted if we want to apply the techniques of Westergaardian analysis to all forms of music. What do we consider as a step interval? And what happens if that step interval is also used as a stable consonance?

    Now, let me take this back to your original post. If, for some reason, (and I’m not ruling out head trauma) we do consider the F#-A to be effectively functioning as a step motion, then the portion of the prelude you summarize as “not a chord progression” could be construed as at least containing a chord progression (though the segmentation of the neighbor motion in the three voices is not aligned; we could postulate a delay in the upper voice, but this is one more layer of elaboration than we need). For that matter, I don’t particularly see why having some voices which are unsegmented over a given timespan should disqualify the timespan from being perceived as a chord progression. “Well, it would have been a chord progression, but you had to go and use a common tone.” My personal inclination would be to say that, if at least three voices are aligned, and no voices are MISaligned, then a chord progression would be perceived.

    Additionally, there’s one topic I’d be curious to see you address at a future time. Since most of your discussion of Westergaardian analysis has been in contrast with harmonic analysis, your focus has been primarily on the pitch dimension; rhythm comes into play only indirectly, as it relates to the alignment of substructures. How do you feel that the principles of rhythm as described by Westergaard — the perception of beats and measures, and the guidelines for segmentation — should apply to more complex music?

  8. funkhauser Says:

    James,

    I really enjoy these music theory entries. I too am a mathematician (in training) who is obsessed with music theory. I can’t wait to read through Westergaard’s book. After reading this page in particular I had a few thoughts that I thought might be interesting/relevant:

    1. First of all, perhaps “the purpose of a line is to move from one tonic triad pitch to another” could be viewed simply as another instance of arpeggiation (A).

    2. Perhaps it is of some interest to view the (R) and (A) operations are “weak” and the (P) and (N) operations are strong, as follows. (R) and (A) preserve chord tones, while (P) and (N) deviate from them. In terms of overtone theory, (R) and (A) most closely maintain resonance (i.e. all notes obtained are overtones of a single note), while (P) and (N) incorporate notes that are less resonant with the original notes. Thus (P) and (N) are perhaps perceived as “stronger” operations, in that the notes obtained from them sound more “distant”.

    3. On first reading this, I was wondering how Westergaard would address the fact that the operations (N) and (P) should stay within the major scale. Does Westergaard have a derivation of the major scale? I thought of one possible explanation, which is as follows. The reason that (N) and (P) stay within the major scale is more or less the same reason that (R) and (A) stay within the same chord–again use overtone theory. Start with a base note, say C, and generate overtones G and E. Then (R) and (A) must stay within these notes. Now extend this picture slightly, by taking all fifths (and fourths) of the previously generated notes–what you get the major scale C, D, E, F, G, A, B. Now demand that (N) and (P) stay within this new framework. In this sense, (N) and (P) have a slightly more extended range than (R) and (A), but the basic idea is the same (again see point 2). What would Westergaard say about all this?

    Now I have a question for you. How would you construct a basic I-IV-I progression using the operations (R), (A), (P), and (N)? I know you hate roman numerals, but please humor me :) . I can see how you could get a I-IV(6/4)-I by keeping the same bass note, say C, all the way through, and using (N) on the other triad tones G and E. However, it seems that there is no way to get a simple C-F-C motion in the bass. Should I be bothered by this? Should this tell me that I should never use C-F-C in the bass?

    Thank you again for such an intriguing blog!

  9. eriq Says:

    funkhauser, found you here studying…

  10. James Cook Says:

    funkhauser:

    1. First of all, perhaps “the purpose of a line is to move from one tonic triad pitch to another” could be viewed simply as another instance of arpeggiation (A)

    Of course: that is how the starting and ending notes of the line would have been generated. (And remember that apreggiation itself is really a form of borrowing.)

    Regarding the construction of the diatonic collection (i.e. the major scale), you will definitely want to read the appendix of ITT, which begins on p. 411. (See also my
    reply to Eric above.
    )

  11. James Cook Says:

    (cont.)

    Now I have a question for you. How would you construct a basic I-IV-I progression using the operations (R), (A), (P), and (N)?

    One may borrow a \hat{4} from another voice in which it occurs through passing or neighbor motion, e.g. as part of a succession \hat{3} - \hat{4} - \hat{3}.

  12. funkhauser Says:

    Okay, thank you! Now I have a slightly more involved question. It regards the status of chord IV (and scale degree 4) in the harmonic structure of pieces, and how it behaves in vastly different ways from chord V.

    It seems to me that a surprisingly large number of progressions of 8 chords found in say, your favorite piece, have a IV chord as the “middle” chord (i.e., if each chord lasts a quarter note and we are in 4/4 time then the IV chord is the first chord of the second measure). Two familiar examples are Pachel’s Canon and the beginning of Bach’s Air on the G string. The chord progressions are, roughly:
    I – V – vi – iii – IV – I – IV – V
    I – iii – vi – vi7 – IV – V7/V – V – V7
    (I’ve left off inversions)

    Note the positions of the IV chords. In Pachelbel’s Canon, the IV is both the fifth and seventh chord–it predominates the second measure of the repeating 2-bar bassline, and could be thought to be tonicized.

    On a much larger scale, I would also like to mention Beethoven’s 6th Symphony, with its first movement in F and second movement in Bb. This key movement is not an accident, and I believe Beethoven did it because Bb is “stable” with respect to a piece in F (see below). And I believe this to be more or less the same reason for the movement to IV in the smaller-scale 8-chord progressions considered above.

    The point is that on scales large and small, degree 4 plays a prominent role. The 8-chord progressions considered above could even be thought of as embellishments of I-IV (-I), each of these chords lasting four beats.

    However, I can’t think of an 8-chord progression I’ve heard in which the V chord is the middle chord. Rather, the V chord usually comes in smaller “bursts” and on weaker beats, such as the last chord, thus leading back into chord I, or as a small passing chord, for instance in the I – V – vi motion. Imagine putting the V in the place of the IV in Pachelbel’s Canon or Bach’s Air. It would completely change the feel of the piece (and arguably, it would ruin it).

    The reason I would give for this discrepancy between IV and V is that the IV chord is more “stable”: somehow the IV sounds tonicized, and it is able to occupy large spans of time. It often occurs on strong beats (i.e. down beats). The V chord on the other hand wants to resolve to I as soon as it is heard, and often occurs on weak beats.

    Perhaps this is because the motion 1 -> 7 is a semitone motion to the 3rd of V (the 3rd being the weakest note of the chord), whereas the motion 3->4 is a semitone motion to the root (the strongest note) of IV. However I am not totally sure what the reason is, and I am wondering if Westergaard’s theory offers any insight into this phenomenon.

    My concern is that as I understand it, both 1 – 7 – 1 and 3 – 4 – 3 are semitone neighbor motions in Westergaard’s theory, and are treated on equal footing. But it seems that in practice, motions 1 – 7 – 1 occur much more quickly than do motions 3- 4-3.

    What I’m wondering is: In Westergaard’s theory can we derive the important difference in function between IV and V? And can we derive the fact that the IV should occupy stronger beats and larger time spans than V?

    I have not found a satisfactory explanation to these questions in Schenkerian analysis. However, if one exists, or if Westergaard has one, then I am all ears.

    Thank you very much for any wisdom.

  13. Pachelbel’s Canon « Mathemusicality Says:

    [...] context for this is a question, of sorts, posed by a commenter named “funkhauser” (the reason I say “of sorts” will hopefully become clear): It seems to me that a [...]

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