Although I am due for a math post (and I would particularly like to try out my newly-acquired LaTeX capabilities), I am for the moment unable to resist pursuing a certain line of thought intimated in two previous posts. (In the future, once I have built up sizeable archives in both of my main topics [and, presumably, others as well], apologies of this sort will hopefully not be necessary.)
Noam Chomsky is one of the most important contributors to contemporary intellectual life; his name will probably come up here with some frequency, as linguistics is among my interests. (Politics, however, is generally not, and consequently I don’t have much to say about his activities in that domain, though they have earned him considerable reknown among the “general public”.) Furthermore, and perhaps even more importantly, the influence of the type of linguistics associated with him has been deeply felt within (at least some schools of) of music theory, as was perhaps most evident during the 1960s and 70s (the era that gave rise to, among other things, Westergaardian theory, of which I am a strong proponent). In particular, important analogies between Schenkerian theory and transformational linguistics were noted and, to some extent, pursued.
This is as it should be; the implications of both Schenker’s and Chomsky’s work for music theory are vast and far-reaching. Frustratingly, however, these implications do not seem to have been fully and properly grasped by either musicians or linguists. For some inexplicable reason, music theory has been almost entirely unable to shake the burden of outdated (and bad) theoretical frameworks, to the point where studies that claim to follow in the footsteps of Schenker and/or Chomsky are often nothing of the sort, but merely fancily-worded applications of “traditional” theories. (As a notorious case in point, I would cite Lerdahl and Jackendoff’s 1983 attempt at A Generative Theory of Tonal Music, discussed approvingly — to my horror — by Steven Pinker in How The Mind Works.)
Why do I bring this up? Well, recently I came across the following video (from a 1977 BBC progam[me] entitled “The Ideas of Chomsky”) in which Chomsky himself illustrates my point (with some help from Paul Hindemith):
The relevant passage is the following:
Chomsky: “Well there is a striking feature of the twentieth century in this respect, that is that the musical creation of the twentieth century I think is qualitatively different from that of say the eighteenth century, in that it lacks that immediate access, or short-term access that was true of the past. One would have to do an experiment to prove it, but I have no doubt that if we took a child of today — two children of today, or let’s say, or two groups and taught one of them, say, Mozart, Haydn, and Beethoven, and taught the other one Schoenberg and post-Schoenbergian music, that there would be a very substantial difference in their capacity to comprehend it, and deal with it, and that may reflect — in fact, if that’s correct it would reflect — something about our innate musical capacities.
“Points of this nature have been discussed for some time: I remember Paul Hindemith, about 25 years ago I think, argued in lectures that to violate the tonal principle in music would be something like an effort to violate the principle of gravitation — I take it that he meant by that that it was an innate property, or well, we might say an innate property…”
The problem is that, although “points of this nature” have indeed been discussed “for some time”, it has yet to be established that these discussions are not completely meaningless! My quarrels with Chomsky’s remarks are basically three:
- It doesn’t follow from the fact (if true) that twentieth-century music is harder to grasp than eighteenth-century music that the former is therefore qualitatively different from the latter; it could be that Schoenberg’s music is just (quantitatively) more complex than Mozart’s, for example. Would Chomsky be willing to claim that the linguistic utterances of an educated adult are qualitatively different from those of, say, a typical ten-year-old?
- It is not a priori obvious how to measure musical understanding in the sense Chomsky intends when he describes the hypothetical experiment. In particular, doing so would require a halfway-decent theoretical framework for describing music (and musical competence along with it), which brings us to the third and most important point:
- By invoking something called the “tonal principle”, Hindemith (and thus Chomsky) brings into the discussion loads of inherited theoretical baggage that isn’t necessarily correct or useful (and which in fact has never proven to be worth a hill of beans, in my very humble opinion).
Just what, exactly, is this “tonal principle” to which Chomsky, via Hindemith, alludes? In vain, one consults Wikipedia:
Music is considered to be tonal if it includes the following five descriptions of tonality: (1) it uses a Major or minor (diatonic) scale system (2) it contains triadic harmonies (three note chords) (3) it has a tonic (central tone) (4) it has a leading tone (7th scale degree) (5) resolution of dissonance (that is: if a chord or note is played (like a leading tone 7th scale degree) that doesn’t sound final, the final sounding chord is played after it (like the tonic) to resolve the piece)
My issues with this excerpt (and the rest of the article) go beyond the amateurish writing style (since when does music “include descriptions” of tonality or anything else?): it has apparently gone unnoticed that no criteria are provided which could allow one to determine whether a given musical composition satisfied the above properties! None of them, in other words, are actually defined (except for (2), which is is pretty easy: every work that contains “three-note chords” qualifies!). What is the difference between a piece that “uses” a major or minor scale and one that doesn’t? Does a composition have to exactly one tonic, or at least one? (Is it even possible for a piece to have no tonics at all?) What’s an example of a work with no leading tone? And don’t even get me started on (5).
It isn’t just the Wikipedia article, of course; I have yet to see these types of questions adequately addressed anywhere, notwithstanding the sizeable literature devoted to the concept of “tonality”. The problem is that very little (if any) of this literature is devoted to establishing the proposition that there exist works which are not “tonal”; even the best of it (such as Westergaard’s work, for instance) proceeds on the assumption that a certain subset of musical works has been identified which deserves this name, and then seeks to formulate (post hoc, as it were) the special property or properties that this music possesses — not by contrasting it with “nontonal” music, but simply by studying its own internal structure. Theorists taking this approach thus often fail to consider the extent to which their theories apply outside their intended domain (it is simply assumed that they don’t), much less the question of whether the restriction in the scope of their inquiry had any theoretical justification in the first place.
The larger point here, which brings us back to Chomsky, is about the proper scope of music theory. I have argued that:
Pace Walter Piston, the subject matter of music theory is not empirical generalization about the practice of composers–that, indeed, is a task of music history. The subject matter of music theory is, rather, the processes in terms of which music is understood . (The use of the word “understood” here rather than “composed”, “performed”, or “heard”, is absolutely crucial.)
From my perspective, the most important insight of the Chomskian revolution in linguistics was that the study of language is the study of an abstract cognitive system, and not of particular human utterances. (Of course, not all linguists seem to have grasped this point, but that’s a topic for a separate discussion.) This insight carries over, almost literally, to the study of music: from a theoretical perspective, music is properly regarded as a type of thought process.
To be sure, there are (at least) a couple of important differences between music and language. One is that the language process is probably a more “basic” and “unconscious” form of human cognition than the musical process (after all, nearly all humans are experts in using language, while very few have comparable proficiency in music). Another, related to this, is that, while linguists aim to study the language faculty “objectively”, from a third-person perspective, musicians (including those that call themselves “music theorists”) are professionally concerned with engaging in the relevant thought processes, rather than studying them from the “outside”. (Studying them from the “inside”, i.e. by introspection, is itself a way of engaging in them, or so I would argue. This is why I would usually consider a “music theorist” as a species of “musician”, and “music theory” as an important part of “musicianship”.) In this respect, musicians are consequently more similar to poets and literary “critics” (I hate this use of that word) than theoretical linguists. (Note, however that a knowledge of linguistics could be very useful to poets.)
But here’s the main point: to say that one theory of music applies to Schoenberg’s First String Quartet and another, totally separate, theory of music applies to his Fourth, is to imply that the human mind must use two completely different sets of tools in order to process the sounds of the two works. I don’t buy it, I know Schoenberg didn’t buy it, and I defy any honest musician to introspect on the question and tell me that he or she buys it.
Posted by James Cook
Posted by James Cook
Posted by James Cook 

